Alright, I might have overlooked something but I've been thinking about this for the past few days and it's just not clicking.
I understand that SPX is an index. No volume data, etc. When graphed, it simply shows the composite weighted average of a basket of 500 individual stocks. SPY, on the other hand is an ETF, which derives its value from the underlying S&P500 index. However, because SPY is a trading vehicle for the SPX, it has some properties that the index doesn't - volume, short interest and it falls victim to the forces of supply and demand, fear, greed, etc. Therefore, wouldn't it make sense that the price of SPY and SPX did not correlate because SPY can be manipulated (in the sense that it couldn't follow SPX) through shorting, panic selling, enthusiastic buying, etc.?
For example, during a market rally, SPY would be appreciating in value simply because overall, the basket of 500 stocks would be gaining value. Investors, becoming aware of this, might rapidly buy into SPY. Wouldn't this increase in sudden demand would cause prices to increase as well, in a magnitude greater than the actually increase of the SPX?
Along those same lines, during a bear market if SPY were shorted, how would the SPY and SPX remain relatively equal? The SPX does not feel the affects of "shorting", yet the two remain relatively equal.
Here's what I'm starting to think: Is it simply because the market participants trading the SPY represent as whole and diverse a sample as those investors trading the individual 500 stocks? Maybe the shorting of SPY is relatively equal to the size, breadth, and magnitude of shorting in the basket of stocks as a whole (which would affect SPX in the same degree, thus leading them to be equal). Perhaps the effects I'm outlining are not great enough in magnitude to thoroughly affect SPY.
Maybe I'm overthinking this, but it is an interesting question. Let me know what you think.
I understand that SPX is an index. No volume data, etc. When graphed, it simply shows the composite weighted average of a basket of 500 individual stocks. SPY, on the other hand is an ETF, which derives its value from the underlying S&P500 index. However, because SPY is a trading vehicle for the SPX, it has some properties that the index doesn't - volume, short interest and it falls victim to the forces of supply and demand, fear, greed, etc. Therefore, wouldn't it make sense that the price of SPY and SPX did not correlate because SPY can be manipulated (in the sense that it couldn't follow SPX) through shorting, panic selling, enthusiastic buying, etc.?
For example, during a market rally, SPY would be appreciating in value simply because overall, the basket of 500 stocks would be gaining value. Investors, becoming aware of this, might rapidly buy into SPY. Wouldn't this increase in sudden demand would cause prices to increase as well, in a magnitude greater than the actually increase of the SPX?
Along those same lines, during a bear market if SPY were shorted, how would the SPY and SPX remain relatively equal? The SPX does not feel the affects of "shorting", yet the two remain relatively equal.
Here's what I'm starting to think: Is it simply because the market participants trading the SPY represent as whole and diverse a sample as those investors trading the individual 500 stocks? Maybe the shorting of SPY is relatively equal to the size, breadth, and magnitude of shorting in the basket of stocks as a whole (which would affect SPX in the same degree, thus leading them to be equal). Perhaps the effects I'm outlining are not great enough in magnitude to thoroughly affect SPY.
Maybe I'm overthinking this, but it is an interesting question. Let me know what you think.













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