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closing price vs. intraday price for triggering stops

post #1 of 2
Thread Starter 

This is all from a swing trading perspective where I have alerts set at my stop level and I manually go in and execute the buy/sell order. When do you use which and why? The closing price is more important than an intraday move so if I'm looking to jump into a breakout or trend change I'll wait for confirmation using the close and often double confirmation with the open the next day. However, say you've been in something for a while and it had a nice rally. You set your stop at the top of the last candle body and the next day the stock opens higher. Things go along fine for a few hours before the stock decides to pullback triggering your stop. The stock immediately rallies back above your stop and remains there. Let's say all this happens around 3:45 pm. Do you sell before the markets close? On one hand your stop was triggered, but on the other hand it may very well close above the stop.

 

 

 

Cliff notes: When is it more ideal to use the intraday price (rather than the closing price) to trigger your stops? 

post #2 of 2

so you didn't have a concrete stop, but a "mental" stop in place? this is my assumption.

 

imo, i woulda sold at the stop.. but if you didn't and it did end up rallying above your stop, i'd sell at the higher price before EOD

 

gotta stick to the plan

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